Cardiovascular pharmacology questions.
Cardiovascular drugs carry more of a pharmacology paper than any other system, and they are also where mechanism pays off fastest. Nearly every question below can be answered from what the drug does to a receptor or an enzyme, without memorising a single list.
Commit to an answer before you reveal it. Every explanation says why the right option is right, not merely which one it is, since a reason is what transfers to the next question and a fact is not.
Q1 Propranolol can worsen asthma. Why?
Answer: It blocks β₂ receptors in bronchial smooth muscle
Propranolol is non-selective, so it blocks β₂ as well as β₁. β₁ blockade is the effect you wanted in the heart; β₂ blockade is the same drug acting on bronchial smooth muscle, where it opposes bronchodilation. One mechanism, two organs, and the second organ is why cardioselective agents exist.
Q2 ACE inhibitors cause a dry cough because they…
Answer: Prevent the breakdown of bradykinin in the airway
ACE does two jobs: it makes angiotensin II and it breaks down bradykinin. Inhibit the enzyme and you get both consequences, so bradykinin accumulates in the airways and provokes cough. ARBs block the receptor instead of the enzyme, leave bradykinin breakdown intact, and therefore do not cause it.
Q3 Which statement correctly separates heparin from warfarin?
Answer: Heparin acts at once and is reversed with protamine
Heparin potentiates antithrombin directly, so the effect is immediate, measured by aPTT and reversed by protamine. Warfarin blocks synthesis of new clotting factors, so it cannot work until existing ones are cleared, which is why it takes days, is measured by INR and is reversed with vitamin K.
Q4 A patient on digoxin starts furosemide. What is the main risk?
Answer: Falling potassium increases digoxin binding and toxicity
Digoxin and potassium compete for the same site on the Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase. Loop diuretics waste potassium, and as plasma potassium falls, less of it is there to compete, so digoxin binds more and its effect rises without the dose changing. The narrow therapeutic index turns that into toxicity.
Q5 Which of these is NOT a recognised feature of amiodarone?
Answer: Rapid clearance, giving a half-life of a few hours
Amiodarone is the opposite of rapidly cleared: it is highly lipophilic, accumulates in tissue and has a half-life measured in weeks. That single pharmacokinetic fact explains the rest of its reputation, because a drug lingering in thyroid, lung and eye for months has time to cause damage there.
Q6 Why are nitrates contraindicated with sildenafil?
Answer: Both raise cyclic GMP, so vasodilation compounds
Nitrates donate nitric oxide, which drives cGMP production; PDE5 inhibitors block the enzyme that degrades cGMP. Increase production and block removal of the same second messenger and the vasodilation compounds rather than adds, which can drop blood pressure dangerously.
Q7 A patient on amlodipine develops ankle oedema. Why?
Answer: Arteriolar dilation raises capillary pressure locally
Dihydropyridines dilate arterioles much more than venules, so capillary hydrostatic pressure rises and fluid is pushed into the tissue. Because total body fluid is normal, this oedema responds poorly to a diuretic, which is the clinical clue that distinguishes it from heart failure.
Q8 Spironolactone causes gynaecomastia because it…
Answer: Also binds androgen and progesterone receptors
Spironolactone is a steroid, and its resemblance to other steroid hormones means it is not selective for the mineralocorticoid receptor. Off-target binding at androgen receptors produces the endocrine side effects. Eplerenone was designed with better receptor selectivity and largely avoids them.
Q9 Which of these beta blockers is cardioselective?
Answer: Bisoprolol, which has high β₁ affinity
Bisoprolol, along with atenolol and metoprolol, has much higher affinity for β₁ than β₂, which makes it the safer choice where airway disease is a concern. Selectivity is relative and dose-dependent, not absolute: push the dose high enough and β₂ blockade appears anyway.
Q10 Statin counselling should always include which warning?
Answer: Report unexplained muscle pain; beware CYP3A4 inhibitors
Myopathy matters because it can progress to rhabdomyolysis, and its risk rises with statin plasma concentration. Most statins are CYP3A4 substrates, so anything inhibiting that enzyme raises the level and the risk, which is the reason grapefruit gets a mention it would not otherwise deserve.
Pick an answer to check it. Nothing is saved, and you can reset the set at any time.
Where to take this next
A set answered once shows you where the gaps are. Closing them takes repetition spaced over weeks, with the misses returning more often than the hits, which is what spaced repetition in the app is for. In the meantime these go deeper on the mechanisms behind the questions above.
- Beta blockers — the mechanism these questions rest on
- ACE inhibitors — the mechanism these questions rest on
- Statins — the mechanism these questions rest on
- Anticoagulants — the mechanism these questions rest on
- Diuretics — the mechanism these questions rest on
- Selective versus non-selective beta blockers
- CYP450 inducers and inhibitors
- Creatinine clearance calculator (Cockcroft-Gault) — free calculator with a worked example
- Half-life and steady state calculator — free calculator with a worked example
Other practice sets
Antimicrobials · Autonomic · Pharmacokinetics · CNS drugs · Endocrine · All practice questions
If you are working towards a named licensing exam, the exam preparation hub shows which of these topics your board weights most heavily.
Study aid only. These questions are written for learning and examination practice. They are not medical advice, not clinical decision support, and must never be used to make a decision about a real patient. Always verify against your local formulary, the product literature and a qualified pharmacist. See our medical disclaimer.
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